The question is, in a mixed economy, what extent do we attribute this axiomatic amorality of the bourgeoise to free market tendencies, and to what extent should we attribute this amorality to government? There is a consensus that both should take blame, but the balance, going off recent government policy, seems to be attributing more of this inefficency and amorality to capitalism.
Plain english:
How much is the problem of greed reducing living standards the governments intervening policies, and how much of it is capitalism?